Posted by tecwrg on 6/16/2013 4:09:00 PM (view original):
Except "one man/one woman" has never been a "restriction". It's been a fundamental and universally consistent attribute of marriage since the beginning of human culture and civilization.
You cannot make a good faith argument that that has not been the case for thousands of years.
Irrelevant, but also false. Ever heard of polygamy?
And regarding "thousands of years," none of us were around then. Certainly the earliest forms of marriage predate recorded history. For all we know, some societies had something akin to gay marriage.
But again, that's simply irrelevant. The issue isn't what was done in the past, but what we should do in our society. Should we deny a segment of our society the same rights the rest enjoy, just because some people can't deal with changes that don't even have any substantial effect on their lives?