Posted by MikeT23 on 10/15/2012 1:09:00 PM (view original):
Their chance of winning when down 1-0 isn't higher than when they're down 3-0? WTF?
It's a whole different ball game. Not that the result wouldn't be the same, Yankees loss, but it's a different ball game. Hell, as a kid, I'd ask the coach if he wanted the run or the hit when we were down 1-0 with a runner on 3rd. The implication was I knew, as a goddam kid, that I could produce a flyout. That question isn't asked, even by a kid, when the score is 3-0. Games are played differently based on the situation.
Gosh, when will you stop giving truckers a bad name and actually learn to read?
I said "it doesn't increase their chances of winning AFTER THE FACT" At the time, sure it decreased their chances of winning. But once the game was over and they'd failed to score a single run, it didn't matter anymore. Without those 2 runs, they lose 1-0.
And the Yankees didn't get a runner to 3B after that play. They went 1 for 7 with 3 Ks. So I feel very confident in saying the bad call had nothing to do with them losing.