Posted by tecwrg on 7/5/2014 4:36:00 PM (view original):
Posted by bad_luck on 7/5/2014 4:22:00 PM (view original):Way to avoid the question again.
Posted by tecwrg on 7/5/2014 4:09:00 PM (view original):You're subsidizing birth control either way.
Posted by bad_luck on 7/5/2014 3:34:00 PM (view original):Way to avoid the question.
The government mandates that you pay your employees wages. And you offered healthcare (that covered contraception) prior to the health insurance mandate, when it was optional.
Again, please explain how your rights are violated when someone else buys something with money you gave them.
Because I don't think that they are. Just saying, "something violates my rights," doesn't make it true.
Again, I'll go back to my previous question that you also avoided answering: is paying an employee and subsidizing health insurance the same thing?
So, if wages are the same as subsidies, why does the government mandate that companies subsidize health insurance for their employees? Why can't companies just give the subsidies directly to the employees as additional wages, so that the employee can do what they wish with the money?
I don't know why that isn't the way it works. I guess my question would be, why is that different? Employer pays someone money, that person uses some of that money to buy birth control. Or employer pays someone money, that person uses some of that money to buy birth control.
In both scenarios, how are the employer's rights being violated?