At the risk of opening a can of worms - I’m trying to understand the no cash in trades position but my thick skull is having a hard time with it. Please help me understand it better. (I’m not being facetious; I really do want to understand it since most vets seem to agree that it’s bad for leagues and many leagues have instituted some form of it) (Also, I tried making it through the 40 page thread but couldn't keep everyone's positions straight between the arguing, off topic, and cross talk)
Take the following situation which I believe is valid use of cash in trades:
Owners routinely offer up ML players available for cash in world chat. Players are typically arb1 or arb2 guys that will probably be released before arb2 or arb3. Examples could include good defensive position player with mediocre to bad bat, decent platoon bats, back end SP/LR innings eater types, etc. Guys you round out a roster with to fill a temporary hole but aren’t long-term solutions. Most are guys that, once they hit FA, fall somewhere between: signed for their asking price without a bidding war or end up getting signed once their demands are lowered.
Most of these players offered in world chat get passed over because they aren’t worth it. But occasionally one will fit a specific teams needs and the player is typically traded for $500k - $3M or so. Rarely up to $5M (usually an arb1 guy or in his last year at the ML minimum).
I'm talking strictly about trades that happen in the pre-season. Cash for garbage players are called out and vetoed. Same with prospect for cash.
Consensus seems to be that these are bad trades correct?
Assuming they are, I’ve got the following questions:
- If owners are selling players for the difference between what the player is making and what the player would receive on the open market is that not fair compensation to the seller? Please read #2 and #3 before responding
- Maybe it would be fair compensation except that the owner receiving cash gets a higher budget. This seems to be a main point of contention, along with how that player intends to use the money. But if every owner has the ability to sell players then every owner has the option to go above his/her budget if they have the assets to do so. The buyer is using funds that would be used in FA to acquire similar players. The seller is turning dead/inefficient funds (for his teams purposes at least) into FA or IFA funds. If used for FA then it's simply changing who spends money in FA (the buyer's funds that would have been used in FA, or even sat unused if, are traded to seller, who then uses the same funds in FA anyway). If used for IFA, then again, other owners can compete if they have been able to acquire and trade similar types of players.
- Would these trades be okay except that the possibility of collusion makes it difficult to ensure truly fair value trades? Such as the highest bidder could be colluding.
Am I close to understanding the issue? I can understand the reasoning behind point #3 but I think I must be missing something obvious in point #2 or missing something else entirely.
8/18/2016 6:47 PM (edited)