Verbal will draft a 1927 player of my choosing in the 2nd round and I will choose a 1940 player of his choosing in the 4th round and then we will make a trade involving those 2 players plus the swapping of first round draft slots. Does that make sense?

We should make the trading of picks clearer before too many deals happen. As I understand the trading rules:

1) All deals must involve an equal number of players (1 for 1, 2 for 2, ect.). A draft pick counts as one player, so you could deal two players for one draft pick and one player.

2) Draft picks always maintain their year. A pick from 1908 remains a 1908 pick if it changes owners. That means you cannot trade into a higher slot in the draft while still selecting a player from the year of your own franchise.

We need to make a ruling, right now, on whether rule #2 holds true. Here is my logic supporting rule #2. If we were allowed to switch draft pick position and maintain our own club's draft year, then the value of each slot in the draft varies greatly. For example, imagine this draft scenario:

1) 1955 Yankees
2) 1907 Tigers
3) 1994 Red Sox
4) 1911 White Sox

The White Sox owner here would be wise to ask for a trade with the Yankees club, giving them an earlier pick than the chronological rival Tigers club. The Yankees lose absolutely nothing trading down from 1st to 4th in the draft, so from their perspective they receive something for nothing. That draft slot has greatly different value to each club.

If instead draft picks ALWAYS maintain their year, then the value of a draft remains the same and we don't have trades where an owner can acquire something for nothing.

Oh, if that's the case, then I guess our trade does not count. I read that as the complete opposite. I thought it was that if you trade picks, you couldn't switch to a different year.

My fault and sorry for all the hoopla.

I would think that when you pick you can only pick players from your teams year. Otherwise in your example the 1911 White Sox have no way possible of picking a player before the Tigers so that it might cause the White Sox to purposely tank the end of the season in order to get ahead of the Tigers. If they were allowed to trade with the Yankees and maintain their ability to pick from 1911 guys then the tanking shouldn't be that big of a deal.

Also given your example though since there is no disadvantage for the Yankees to pick #1 or #4 why would the Yankees ever make that deal without getting something else in return (which Pittsburgh might have to give up to make the Yankees want to trade the pick.) I think the fact that the picks have different value to different people is just how this league is going to be. It's the same way in the Team Icon leagues and those work out fine.

wait I think everyone is confused. When you trade a draft pick you still draft your year no matter what. so if you move to 7 you would draft 1927 because you have the pittsburgh team pmars2001 would draft in your spot at 1940. but why would he trade up if he didn't get anything though. If you gave him your 2nd round pick and he gave you 4th round pick then that would be cool.

so now an owner how owns a 1962 pick like myself cannot draft a 1908 slot ever

now trades for players can be done which is fine I could trade my willie mays for roger hornsby if I wanted too

Okay, so I did understand the trading slots rule then and our trade is good?

yeah look at the draft order in the 2nd and 4th rounds. In the future send me the trade like this

Verbal Kint gets:

7th pick in the 1st round
7th pick in the 4th round

Pmars2001 gets:

15th pick in the 1st round
15th pick in the 2nd round

the trade between pmars2001 and verbal kint will be this:

Pmars 2001 gets:

15th pick in the first round
rights to player drafted in the 2nd round by verbal kint

Verbal Kint gets:

7th pick in the first round
rights to player drafted in the 4th round by pmars2001

so I didn't want to make time frames but I see the owner that is next has not been on in several hours. I may have to if this continues.

ok, thanks guys... trade stuff looks much better now!

Here is a question I couldn't find addressed:

For example, John McGraw is property of the 1902 Giants. That is also McGraw's last year as a player.

Does he become available to those owners (only me in this case) that rotate up a year that he is active since he can no longer be on a Giants roster as they move up to 1903?

Or, are any players that have ever been rostered become permanently blacklisted?

By the way, I support any kind of time slots. Especially in this draft since many owners behind me cannot pick anyone who ever played in 1894. I wouldn't want to hold up anyone who had limited time online.

I believe that was answered before exactly as you suggested. Since the Giants cannot have him in 1903 he becomes draft eligible. Since you're the only person that can draft him he'll start in whatever season you are playing when you draft him.

ROD CAREW.. 2B..SELECTED""BY OAKLAND