Posted by bad_luck on 10/23/2018 2:55:00 PM (view original):
Posted by cccp1014 on 10/23/2018 2:43:00 PM (view original):
If this is true and can be verified I am all for it. Still don’t see how it works using myself as an example.
Think about it this way.
Current system:
Cost to individuals over 10 years: X
Cost to government (tax revenue) over ten years: Y
X + Y = Z
Nationalized:
Cost to individuals: 0
Cost to government: A
A + 0 = A
A < Z
Obviously, taxes go up under the nationalized plan so A is significantly larger than Y, but cumulatively, A is less.
Classic BL. You have no effing clue how much A would be, but you just throw A<Z as if it's a universal truth ("Well, A is first, and Z is last, so therefore nationalized healthcare is cheaper... ")
If I'm a medical provider, I jack the cost of A through the roof so that A >>>> Z, and invalidates your whole argument.