I could be wrong on this but here is my thought:
P of rolling 2 1s with n dice = nC2*(1/6)^2 * (5/6)^(n-2)
That looks better.
So this is my logic. You are playing with combinations here. Suppose you have 3 dice, you can have 1,1,x 1,x,1, or x,1,1. So it's clearly a combination problem.
You want 2 dice to be 1, with a total of 3 dice, 4 dice...n dice, so it's n C 2 (n choose 2) total combinations. You then times it by the (1/6)^2. 1/6 is the probability of getting you 1, to the power of 2, because you want it to happen 2x. 5/6 is the prob of not getting a 1, and you want it to happen (n-2) times.
And obviously you can modify the formula for any number of dice to be 1. If you want 3 dice to be 1, it's nC3(1/6)^3 * (5/6)^(n-3).
9/11/2012 10:37 AM (edited)