Press perimeter defense question. Topic

Scapegoat22
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A friend of mine is under the impression that a press set at 0 is the same as a man set at +2, but he can't remember where he learned this. Is there anyone who can confirm or deny this, perhaps with a forum link or some sort of source if possible. Thanks, just curious.
2/2/2024 10:35 PM
jweatherman
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My opinion is that's it's more the opposite. If I'm running press at 0, I'm banking on the level of fouls I'd get at -3ish in man.
2/3/2024 9:54 AM
Trentonjoe
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The 3-2 zone (0) is about the same as man (+2) in its ability to prevent 3fga and reduce the likelihood of them being successful.
2/3/2024 10:39 AM
cubcub113
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Posted by Scapegoat22 on 2/2/2024 10:35:00 PM (view original):
A friend of mine is under the impression that a press set at 0 is the same as a man set at +2, but he can't remember where he learned this. Is there anyone who can confirm or deny this, perhaps with a forum link or some sort of source if possible. Thanks, just curious.
Sounds like he's talking about 2-3 zone vs 3-2 zone?
2/3/2024 10:51 AM
Press perimeter defense question. Topic
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