Is there a good reason for this?

My 1992 Yankees team is 14-31 in one run games, that's a winning % of .311.
In games decided by more than one run we are 73-26.  That's a winning % of just under .740.

Really?  

We are 9th (out of 24) in runs scored and 1st in runs allowed.

My bullpen is pretty solid.

I have scored 212 more runs than my opponents.

Anyone have any ideas why my team is so much worse in one run games?
9/6/2011 6:28 PM
Guess: You win a lot of blowouts and make your losses close.
9/6/2011 6:52 PM
I have won 6 by 10 runs.  None more than 12.
9/6/2011 7:04 PM
Posted by llamanunts on 9/6/2011 6:52:00 PM (view original):
Guess: You win a lot of blowouts and make your losses close.
I basically agree, but I'd put it another way: your run distribution is likely off.  This is most likely the result of "living off the three-run homer"  If you want to be scientific about it look at the frequency of your run support and runs allowed. 
9/6/2011 10:31 PM
Since your team was 30 games over .500 at the time of your post, I wouldn't lose any sleep over it and just chalk it up to bad luck, especially if most of the 1 run losses were 9 inning games as opposed to extra innings where you could adjust your late inning pitchers to have more of an effect. 
9/8/2011 2:04 PM

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