Rules Question Topic

I had a game in one of my leagues where my bullpen gave up 5 runs in the ninth to lose the game 9-8.

The first hitter reached on an error, the next two were retired and then five runs scored. Fingers, the pitcher who started the inning, was charged with two unearned runs, but Broxton, who relieved him, was charged with 3 earned runs.

I always thought any runs that scored after two were out, in an inning where an error was made, were unearned. Does that not apply if a new pitcher comes in? I know if Fingers had pitched the whole inning, he'd have 5 unearned runs. Why is Broxton charged when he wouldn't even have been in the game without the initial error?
5/15/2010 7:43 PM
i ran in to the same thing as you a couple years ago....i thought my guy was charged incorrectly for a couple earned runs. i went to the source - the mlb rule book - and looked it up...broxton is charged with earned runs...

http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/downloads/y2008/official_rules/10_the_official_scorer.pdf

page down to rule 10.16 to 10.17
5/15/2010 7:59 PM
Doesn't matter if Broxton shouldn't have been in the game. He came in with one out (I don't actually know, just guessing) and allowed the 3 runs (plus the inherited runners) before getting the last 2 (1? 3?) outs. Error didn't affect his outs.
5/15/2010 9:02 PM
dahs...read my post above. All 5 runs scored with two outs. Fingers let one run in, then Broxton let in one inherited runner and three of his own.

nonenone....thanks, that clears it up.
5/15/2010 9:56 PM
Jtpsops...read my post above. You didn't specify how many outs each pitcher made. The scenario still makes sense and explains why the rule makes sense the way it is. Fine, Broxton came in with 2 outs. He then allowed the inherited runner to score and gave up 3 more runs. He came in needing one out and gave up 3 runs before he got it. The error didn't affect his out because it occurred before he was in the game. The situation in which he entered was 2 outs, presumably one man on. He didn't pitch well at all and gave up those 3 charged runs. Why should they not be earned? None of those three runners were put on by an error. No errors contributed to their scoring. Broxton entered in a situation and couldn't control it. His fault, not the defense's fault. Explain to me how in your mind it matters if the out he made should have been necessary. When he came in it was needed and he gave up 3 runs before he got it.
5/16/2010 1:48 AM
it's actually a scoring quirk. technically, those runs are EARNED to the pitcher, since the error didn't occur in his scope, but the runs are UNEARNED to the team.
5/16/2010 3:18 PM
Quote: Originally posted by footballmm11 on 5/16/2010it's actually a scoring quirk. technically, those runs are EARNED to the pitcher, since the error didn't occur in his scope, but the runs are UNEARNED to the team.

That's what I was really after, football.

dahs...my point was, if an error prolongs an inning, all the runs that score after the inning would already be over should be unearned, and they are if the same pitcher stays in the game.

It makes sense now though, if the team is still credited with unearned runs, even if the new RP isn't.
5/16/2010 3:45 PM
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