Does anyone have an explanation for this? Topic

combalt
Posts: 513 (0)
Hall of Famer
481 181 2
Rookie
I was looking at the PbP for one of my games and came across this sequence:
B.Ryan enters the game to pitch.
A.Berroa lines a single to CF.
B.Mattick enters the game as a pinch-hitter for C.Green.
DPSH- <========= B.Mattick lays down a sacrifice bunt to 1B. All runners advance.


How does the first baseman get charged with a minus play on that? Does it mean that if he'd made a 'normal play' it would have turned into a DP?
3/5/2018 1:52 AM
FatDad
Posts: 355 (0)
Hall of Famer
95
Rookie
I would think the better 1B would have got the force out.
3/5/2018 1:57 AM
d_rock97
Posts: 4343 (0)
Hall of Famer
784
Prospect
Posted by FatDad on 3/5/2018 1:57:00 AM (view original):
I would think the better 1B would have got the force out.
Yup, they playing double play depth. There would be no advance in runners if the 1st baseman had better range. Although I think he woulda caught the popped up bunt rather than getting the force at 2nd. I think the runner on 1st stays the same.
3/5/2018 2:13 AM
Does anyone have an explanation for this? Topic
△Top△Bottom

Search Criteria

Terms of Use Customer Support Privacy Statement

© 1999-2026 WhatIfSports.com, Inc. All rights reserved. WhatIfSports is a trademark of WhatIfSports.com, Inc. SimLeague, SimMatchup and iSimNow are trademarks or registered trademarks of Electronic Arts, Inc. Used under license. The names of actual companies and products mentioned herein may be the trademarks of their respective owners.